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Section 4: Sample Selected-Response Questions
Science 7–12 (236)

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This section presents some sample exam questions for you to review as part of your preparation for the exam. To demonstrate how each competency may be assessed, sample questions are accompanied by the competency that they measure. While studying, you may wish to read the competency before and after you consider each sample question. Please note that the competency statements do not appear on the actual exam.

For each sample exam question, there is a correct answer and a rationale for each answer option. The sample questions are included to illustrate the formats and types of questions you will see on the exam; however, your performance on the sample questions should not be viewed as a predictor of your performance on the actual exam.

The following reference materials will be available to you during the exam:

Domain I—Scientific Inquiry and Processes

Competency 001—The teacher understands how to select and manage learning activities to ensure the safety of all students and the correct use and care of organisms, natural resources, materials, equipment and technologies.

1. Which of the following is safety equipment that can be found in a high school chemistry lab?

  1. Bunsen burner
  2. Eyewash station
  3. Barometer
  4. Glass mercury thermometer
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because an eyewash station is used to flush the eyes hen liquids have been splashed or sprayed into a person’s eyes. Option A is incorrect because a Bunsen burner is used to heat some materials in the lab and must be used with care. Option C is incorrect because a barometer is used to measure atmospheric pressure. Option D is incorrect because a glass mercury thermometer can pose a significant hazard due to possible broken glass and mercury exposure.

2. Which of the following is approximately equal to the average distance between Earth and the Sun?

  1. One parsec
  2. One AU
  3. One light-year
  4. One nanometer
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because although the distance of Earth from the Sun varies throughout its orbit around the Sun, the average distance of Earth from the Sun is approximately 149,669,000,000 meters which is very close to one astronomical unit (one AU = 149,597,870,700 meters). Option A is incorrect because one parsec is 3.26 light-years. Option C is incorrect because a light-year is the distance that light travels in one year (approximately 9.46 times 10 to the power of 12 kilometers). Option D is incorrect because one nanometer equals 1 times 10 to the power of negative 9 meter.
Competency 002—The teacher understands the nature of science, the process of scientific inquiry and the unifying concepts that are common to all sciences.

3. Which of the following is a scientific inference?

  1. Data suggests that Mars once had liquid water
  2. Repeated measurements of a quantity will reduce random error
  3. Electrical equipment should be grounded
  4. A measurement has three significant figures
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because it is a reasonable conclusion drawn from data, which defines a scientific inference. Option B is incorrect because it is a mathematical statement of fact. Option C is incorrect because it describes a safety practice. Option D is incorrect because it is an observation.
Competency 003—The teacher understands the history of science, how science impacts the daily lives of students and how science interacts with and influences personal and societal decisions.

4. Investigators have designed and produced a vaccine to prevent infection of humans by a common disease-causing virus. Which of the following must the investigators do before the vaccine can be administered to people in the United States?

  1. Nothing must be done; doctors can purchase and administer the vaccine
  2. The vaccine must be tested for its efficacy in comparison to antibiotics currently available
  3. An Institutional Review Board and the Food and Drug Administration must approve an application to conduct a clinical trial
  4. The Centers for Disease Control must confirm the necessity for the vaccine and approve its use
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because testing of drugs, vaccines and procedures is carefully regulated to protect human health. Option A is incorrect because the vaccine must be tested in carefully regulated clinical trials prior to use in people. Option B is incorrect because antibiotics are used to treat bacterial infections, not viral infections, in which they are ineffective. Option D is incorrect because the CDC does not regulate which vaccines are produced or approve them for use. The major function of the CDC is to monitor and protect public health and safety.

Domain II—Physics

Competency 004—The teacher understands the description of motion in one and two dimensions.

5. A ball is thrown directly upward on Earth. In the absence of air resistance, which of the following is true about both the magnitude and direction of the acceleration of the ball as it rises? (g is the acceleration due to gravity near Earth’s surface.)

  1. Magnitude = g, Direction Downward
  2. Magnitude = g, Direction Upward
  3. Magnitude is less than g, Direction Upward
  4. Magnitude is greater than g, Direction Downward
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the acceleration of the rising ball is equal to g in magnitude and is oriented downward. Option B is incorrect because the acceleration of the rising ball is oriented downward, not upward. Option C is incorrect because the acceleration of the rising ball is equal to g in magnitude and is oriented downward. Option D is incorrect because the acceleration of the rising ball is equal to g in magnitude.

6. A car traveling along a straight road accelerates from 20 m/s to 50 m/s in 10 s. What is the magnitude of the acceleration of the car?

  1. 2 m/s squared
  2. 3 m/s squared
  3. 5 m/s squared
  4. 7 m/s squared
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because it properly computes the acceleration from the formula v subscript f equals v subscript i plus a t, where v subscript f is the final speed, v subscript i is the initial speed, a is the acceleration, and t is the time. Applying the equation gives 50 m/s equals 20 m/s plus 10, or a equals 3 m/s squared. Option A is incorrect because it uses the initial speed of 20 m/s only to compute the acceleration. Option C is incorrect because it uses the final speed of 50 m/s only to compute the acceleration. Option D is incorrect because it uses the sum instead of the difference of the two speeds to compute the acceleration.
Competency 005—The teacher understands the laws of motion.

7. Which of the following is the term for the tendency of an object to resist a change in its motion?

  1. Acceleration
  2. Weight
  3. Inertia
  4. Force
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because the inertia of a body is the tendency of a body to resist a change in its motion. Option A is incorrect because acceleration is the rate at which the velocity of an object changes. Option B is incorrect because the weight of an object is the gravitational force exerted on the object. Option D is incorrect because force will typically cause a change in motion.
Competency 006—The teacher understands the concepts of gravitational and electromagnetic forces in nature.

8. On the basis of Coulomb’s law, which of the following is true about the electrostatic force between two charges?

  1. It is different in magnitude for the two charges
  2. It depends on the masses of the charges
  3. It is always repulsive
  4. It increases in magnitude as the distance between the charges decreases
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because, according to Coulomb's law, the electrostatic force between two charges is inversely proportional to the square of the distance between the charges and, therefore, increases in magnitude as the distance between the charges decreases. Option A is incorrect because, according to Coulomb's law, the magnitude of the force acting on each charge is the same. Option B is incorrect because, according to Coulomb's law, the electrostatic force between two charges depends on the magnitudes of the charges, not of the masses. Option C is incorrect because, according to Coulomb's law, the electrostatic force between two charges depends on the relative signs of the charges and will be attractive when the two charges are oppositely charged and will be repulsive when the two charges are either both positively charged or both negatively charged.

9. Of the following types of electromagnetic waves, which have the highest frequency?

  1. Ultraviolet waves
  2. Infrared waves
  3. X-rays
  4. Radio waves
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because x-rays have a higher frequency than all other types of electromagnetic waves except for gamma rays. Option A is incorrect because ultraviolet light is lower in frequency than are x-rays. Option B is incorrect because infrared radiation is lower in frequency than both ultraviolet light and x-rays. Option D is incorrect because radio waves have a lower frequency than all other types of electromagnetic waves.
Competency 007—The teacher understands applications of electricity and magnetism.

10. A 3 ohm resistor and a 6 ohm resistor are connected in parallel to an 18 V source. What is the total current in the circuit?

  1. 2 A
  2. 3 A
  3. 6 A
  4. 9 A
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because it properly notices that, since the two resistors are connected in parallel, the voltage across each resistor is 18 V. It follows from Ohm's law that the current through the 3 ohm resistor is 6 A and the current through the 6 ohm resistor is 3 A, giving a total current in the circuit equal to 3 A + 6 A = 9 A. Option A is incorrect because it gives the result for a 3 ohm and a 6 ohm resistor connected in series, not parallel. Option B is incorrect because it gives the current through the 6 ohm resistor, not the total current in the circuit. Option C is incorrect because it gives the current through the 3 ohm resistor, not the total current in the circuit.
Competency 008—The teacher understands the conservation of energy and momentum.

11. A 400 g cart is moving at a constant speed of 12 cm/s along a straight horizontal air track. It collides and sticks to a second cart of mass 800 g, which is at rest. What is the speed of the two cars immediately after the collision?

  1. 0
  2. 4 cm/s
  3. 6 cm/s
  4. 12 cm/s
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because it properly applies the law of conservation of linear momentum to obtain the equation left paren 400 g right paren times left paren 12 cm/s right paren equals left paren 400 g plus 800 g right paren times v, which can be solved to determine that the correct speed v of the coupled cars just after the collision is 4 cm/s. Option A is incorrect because, based on the law of conservation of linear momentum, the coupled cars must be moving. Option C is incorrect because it uses the mass of the 800 g cart to compute the speed of the coupled carts instead of the combined mass of the two carts. Option D is incorrect because it assumes that the speed of the coupled cars is equal to the original speed of the 400 g cart before the collision, which is not true.
Competency 009—The teacher understands the laws of thermodynamics.

12. Which of the following phase changes involves an increase in entropy?

  1. Gas to liquid
  2. Gas to solid
  3. Liquid to gas
  4. Liquid to solid
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because a gas has less order than a liquid and therefore greater entropy. Thus, a liquid-to-gas phase change involves an increase in entropy. Option A is incorrect because a liquid has more order than a gas and therefore less entropy. Thus, a gas-to-liquid phase change involves a decrease in entropy. Option B is incorrect because a solid has more order than a gas, and therefore less entropy. Thus, a gas-to-solid phase change involves a decrease in entropy. Option D is incorrect because a solid has more order than a liquid and therefore less entropy. Thus, a liquid-to-solid phase change involves a decrease in entropy.
Competency 010—The teacher understands the characteristics and behavior of waves.

13. Which of the following is an example of the dispersion of light?

  1. The bending and spreading of light as it passes through a narrow slit
  2. The separation of light into its component colors as it passes through a prism
  3. The deflection of light by a mirror
  4. The absorption of light by an object
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the separation of the light into its component frequencies by a prism is an example of dispersion. Option A is incorrect because it is an example of the diffraction of light, not dispersion. Option C is incorrect because it is an example of the reflection, or scattering, of light, not dispersion. Option D is incorrect because absorption involves the manner in which electromagnetic energy is taken up by matter.
Competency 011—The teacher understands the fundamental concepts of quantum physics.

14. According to the Bohr model of the hydrogen atom, a photon is emitted by the atom when which of the following occurs?

  1. An electron makes a transition from a higher to a lower energy level
  2. A neutron decays into a proton and an electron
  3. X-rays are absorbed by the nucleus
  4. A proton collides with another proton
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the Bohr model describes an atom in terms of discrete stationary energy levels, and it is the transition of an electron from a higher energy level to a lower energy level that results in the emission of a photon by an atom. Option B is incorrect because it describes beta decay, not emission of a photon. Option C is incorrect because it is a process outside of the scope of the Bohr model. Option D is incorrect because the Bohr model is not concerned with proton-proton collisions.

Domain III—Chemistry

Competency 012—The teacher understands the characteristics of matter and atomic structure.

15. Which of the following is the number of neutrons in superscript 13 subscript 6 C ?

  1. 0
  2. 6
  3. 7
  4. 13
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because there are 7 neutrons in superscript 13 subscript 6 C. The atomic number is 6 and equal to the number of protons in the atom. The mass number is 13 and is equal to the number of protons plus neutrons. Hence, the number of neutrons is 7 (13 − 6 = 7). Option A is incorrect because all atoms have neutrons, with the exception of one isotope of hydrogen. Option B is incorrect because 6 is the number of protons. Option D is incorrect because 13 is the number of protons plus neutrons.
Competency 013—The teacher understands the properties of gases.

16. If a gas with a pressure of 1.0 atm expands into a volume that is twice its original volume, and the gas is heated from 100.0 K to 400.0 K, what is the final pressure of the gas?

  1. 0.5 atm
  2. 2.0 atm
  3. 4.0 atm
  4. 8.0 atm
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the pressure is 2.0 atm, calculated as follows: P subscript 2 equals P subscript 1 times fraction V subscript 1 over V subscript 2 times fraction T subscript 2 over T subscript 1 equals 1 atm times fraction 1 half times fration 400 over 100 equals 2 atm. Option A is incorrect because 0.50 is four times smaller than the correct pressure. Option C is incorrect because 4.0 is twice the correct pressure. Option D is incorrect because 8.0 is four times larger than the correct pressure.
Competency 014—The teacher understands the properties and characteristics of ionic and covalent bonds.

17. Of the following bonds, which would require the most energy to break?

  1. C triple bond C
  2. C double bond C
  3. C single bond C
  4. C single bond H
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because a triple bond between two carbon atoms is stronger than either a double bond or a single bond between carbon atoms. It is also stronger than a single bond between C and H (which is stronger than a single bond between carbon atoms but weaker than a double bond between carbon atoms). Option B is incorrect because a double bond between carbon atoms is weaker than a triple bond. Option C is incorrect because a single bond between carbon atoms is weaker than a triple bond. Option D is incorrect because a single bond between carbon and hydrogen atoms is weaker than a double bond between carbon atoms.
Competency 015—The teacher understands and interprets chemical equations and chemical reactions.

Use the equation below to answer the question that follows.

C left paren s right paren plus O subscript 2 left paren g right paren becomes CO subscript 2 left paren g right paren

18. The reaction rate is determined for a reaction between oxygen and three thin carbon rods of uniform size and shape in a closed reaction vessel. Which of the following changes to the reaction or reactor design is most likely to result in a higher reaction rate for the one-step reaction represented above?

  1. Replacing the three thin rods with a carbon rod equal in mass to the total mass of the thin rods and with same length and height
  2. Using a design that involves removing the carbon dioxide as it forms
  3. Starting with a larger mass of oxygen gas
  4. Running the reaction in a larger vessel
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because starting with a larger mass of oxygen gas will increase the concentration of oxygen in the vessel and thus increase the rate of reaction (rate = k[O2] for this one-step reaction). Option A is incorrect because using one thick carbon rod will reduce the surface area that can react with the oxygen and thus result in a lower initial reaction rate. Option B is incorrect because removing carbon dioxide will not affect the reaction rate since it is not part of the rate equation. Option D is incorrect because running the reaction in a larger vessel will reduce the oxygen pressure (and concentration) and thus reduce the reaction rate.
Competency 016—The teacher understands types and properties of solutions.

19. Sugar is dissolved in water at 80°C. The temperature is reduced to 40°C and some of the sugar precipitates. Which of the following best describes the solution at 40°C when solid sugar is present?

  1. Dilute
  2. Supersaturated
  3. Unsaturated
  4. Saturated
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the solution is saturated as evidenced by the precipitation of sugar. The dissolved sugar exceeds the maximum solubility for 40°C and the excess sugar precipitated. Option A is incorrect because "dilute" would indicate that very little sugar is present in solution, when in fact there is a significant amount of dissolved sugar in solution. Option B is incorrect because "supersaturated" describes a solution in which more than the maximum amount of solute is dissolved and there is no precipitate. Option C is incorrect because "unsaturated" means that the maximum amount that could dissolved has not been reached and that no precipitate would be present.
Competency 017—The teacher understands energy transformations that occur in physical and chemical processes.

20. Which of the following must be true about a spontaneous chemical reaction at constant temperature and pressure?

  1. Delta H subscript rxn is greater than 0
  2. Delta V is greater than 0
  3. Delta G subscript rxn is less than 0
  4. Delta S subscript rxn is less than 0
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because at constant temperature and pressure, Delta G subscript rxn is less than 0 for a spontaneous process. Option A is incorrect because spontaneity of the reaction cannot be predicted by Delta H subscript rxn alone. Option B is incorrect because spontaneity of the reaction cannot be predicted by Delta V. Option D is incorrect because spontaneity of the reaction cannot be predicted by Delta S subscript rxn alone.
Competency 018—The teacher understands nuclear fission, nuclear fusion and nuclear reactions.

21. Of the following types of radiation, which have the highest penetrating capacity?

  1. Alpha particles
  2. Beta particles
  3. X-rays
  4. Gamma rays
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because the relative penetrating capacity is as follows: gamma rays is greater than x-rays is greater than beta particles is greater than alpha particles. Option A is incorrect because alpha particles have the least penetrating capacity of the four listed. Option B is incorrect because beta particles have less penetrating capacity than gamma rays. Option C is incorrect because x-rays have lower energy and longer wavelengths than gamma rays.
Competency 019—The teacher understands oxidation and reduction reactions.

22. Which of the following represents a reduction process only?

  1. CU becomes CU superscript 2 positive plus 2 e superscript negative
  2. CU superscript 2 positive plus 2 e superscript negative becomes CU
  3. 2 FE O becomes 2 FE plus O subscript 2
  4. C plus O subscript 2 becomes C O subscript 2
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because Cu superscript 2 positive (oxidation number is +2) is reduced in oxidation number to Cu (oxidation number is 0) by the addition of 2 electrons. Option A is incorrect because Cu is oxidized as Cu superscript 2 positive forms. Option C is incorrect because the reaction 2 FE O becomes 2 FE plus O subscript 2 involves both oxidation and reduction. Option D is incorrect because the reaction C plus O subscript 2 becomes C O subscript 2 involves both oxidation and reduction.
Competency 020—The teacher understands acids, bases and their reactions.

23. Which of the following is a Brønsted-Lowry acid?

  1. N H subscript 4 O H
  2. C H subscript 3 C O O H
  3. CH subscript 4
  4. XeF subscript 4
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because when C H subscript 3 C O O H is dissolved in water, it donates a proton to H subscript 2 O to form H subscript 3 O positive. Option A is incorrect because N H subscript 4 O H is a Brønsted base. Option C is incorrect because CH subscript 4 is neither a Brønsted acid nor a Brønsted base. Option D is incorrect because XeF subscript 4 is neither a Brønsted acid nor a Brønsted base.

Domain IV—Cell Structure and Processes

Competency 021—The teacher understands the structure and function of biomolecules.

24. Which of the following best explains why the structure of phospholipids makes them well suited to be the major component of most bacterial and eukaryotic cell membranes?

  1. Phospholipids exhibit a branching structure and so can interact with many other molecules on each side of a membrane
  2. Phospholipids are flexible and so allow a cell to contract or expand, as required under different conditions
  3. Phospholipids form bilayers with one end buried in the bilayer and the other end exposed to an aqueous environment
  4. Phospholipids are a major source of energy for cells because they contain fatty acids and phosphate groups
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because phospholipids are amphipathic, meaning that one end is charged and hydrophilic and the other end, the one composed of fatty acid tails, is hydrophobic. In an aqueous environment, such as a cell, a phospholipid bilayer is formed in which the hydrocarbon tails are forced together by hydrophobic interactions and the charged heads of the phospholipids are on the outer surfaces of the membrane, in contact with the cytosol, or with the interior of an organelle, or with the extracellular environment. Option A is incorrect because phospholipids do not branch. Option B is incorrect because phospholipids do not regulate the size of a cell through flexibility, although they are frequently added to and removed from a plasma membrane as a cell secretes or ingests materials, respectively. Option D is incorrect because the lipids that provide energy are triglycerides rather than phospholipids, which provide structure.
Competency 022—The teacher understands that cells are the basic structure of living things and have specialized parts that perform specific functions.

25. Which of the following cell types contains a particularly extensive smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores a large amount of Ca superscript 2 positive for intracellular signaling?

  1. Neuron
  2. Muscle cell
  3. Epithelial cell
  4. Lymphocyte
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because muscle cells have an extensive membrane system composed of the sarcolemma and T-tubules, derived from the smooth endoplasmic reticulum that stores Ca superscript 2 positive, which is released during muscle contraction. Options A, C and D are incorrect because each cell type has a smooth endoplasmic reticulum that performs a variety of functions, including the storage of a small amount of Ca superscript 2 positive, but the smooth endoplasmic reticulum is not unusually extensive.
Competency 023—The teacher understands how cells carry out life processes.

26. Isolated plant cells are placed in a solution of 10% sucrose. When a sample of the cells is observed under a microscope after a few minutes in the solution, it is observed that the plasma membrane of each cell has pulled away from the cell wall. Which of the following is the best explanation?

  1. Solutes only moved out of the cells into the sucrose solution
  2. Water only moved out of the cells into the sucrose solution
  3. Sucrose moved into the cells, and water moved out of the cells into the sucrose solution
  4. Solutes and water both moved out of the cells into the sucrose solution
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because the cells are in a hyperosmotic (hypertonic) solution, and so water—the only molecule that can move freely between the plasma membrane lipids—moves out of the cell to bring the solute concentration inside and outside the cell to equilibrium. Option A is incorrect for two reasons: solutes will not move by passive transport from a lower concentration to a higher concentration to bring the solute concentration to equilibrium, and solutes cannot freely cross the plasma membrane. Option C is incorrect because sucrose cannot cross the plasma membrane into the cell without the help of a pump protein; only water moves out. Option D is incorrect because only water moves out of the cells; solutes will not move by passive transport from a lower concentration to a higher concentration to bring the solute concentration to equilibrium, and solutes cannot freely cross the plasma membrane.
Competency 024—The teacher understands how specialized cells, tissues, organs, organ systems and organisms grow and develop.

27. Which of the following is most commonly associated with the development of liver cancer?

  1. Infection by hepatitis B virus
  2. Smoking of marijuana
  3. Long-term use of antibiotics
  4. Active Sun exposure
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because liver cancer (hepatic carcinoma) frequently occurs after an infection by a hepatitis B virus. In countries with a high incidence of hepatitis B infection, there is also a much higher incidence of hepatic carcinoma. Option B is incorrect because there is no known association between marijuana and hepatic carcinoma. Option C is incorrect because no association has been shown between long-term use of antibiotics and hepatic carcinoma, although long-term antibiotic use can lead to emergence of strains of antibiotic-resistant bacteria. Option D is incorrect because there is no known association between hepatic carcinoma and excessive Sun exposure, although the latter can lead to various forms of skin cancer.

Domain V—Heredity and Evolution of Life

Competency 025—The teacher understands the structures and functions of nucleic acids in the mechanisms of genetics.

28. Which of the following accurately describes the process of transcription?

  1. A ribosome moves along an mRNA and joins amino acids according to the sequence of the mRNA
  2. A ribosome moves along a stretch of DNA and joins amino acids according to the sequence of a template strand of the DNA
  3. A DNA polymerase moves along a template strand of DNA and makes a complementary RNA copy
  4. An RNA polymerase moves along a stretch of DNA and makes a complementary RNA copy of the template strand
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because RNA polymerase catalyzes the addition of ribonucleotides into RNA according to the DNA sequence encountered by the polymerase as it moves along the template strand of a gene, which occupies a stretch of DNA. Option A is incorrect because the option describes translation. Option B is incorrect because ribosomes move along mRNAs, not DNA, and join amino acids as they translate the codon sequence found in the mRNAs. Option C is incorrect because DNA polymerases make complementary DNA copies of template strands of DNA during DNA replication.
Competency 026—The teacher understands the continuity and variations of traits from one generation to the next.

29. Which of the following tables correctly compares mitosis and meiosis?

  1. Maximum number of daughter cells Amount of DNA relative to parent cell Sequence of daughter DNA relative to parent
    Mitosis 4 one-half different
    Meiosis 2 same same
  2. Maximum number of daughter cells Amount of DNA relative to parent cell Sequence of daughter DNA relative to parent
    Mitosis 2 same same
    Meiosis 2 one-half same
  3. Maximum number of daughter cells Amount of DNA relative to parent cell Sequence of daughter DNA relative to parent
    Mitosis 2 same same
    Meiosis 4 one-half different
  4. Maximum number of daughter cells Amount of DNA relative to parent cell Sequence of daughter DNA relative to parent
    Mitosis 2 same same
    Meiosis 1 double different
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option C is correct because two cells that are identical to the parent result from mitosis, while four cells with half as much DNA as the parent and slightly differing DNA sequence result from meiosis. Both mitosis and meiosis commence after DNA replication, when each chromosome becomes composed of a pair of identical chromatids. In meiosis, the homologous pairs of chromosomes pair up during prophase, crossing over when DNA exchange occurs between non-sister chromatids, and the homologues separate into two daughter cells at the first division. The sister chromatids, no longer completely identical, separate at the second division. Mitosis, which does not involve pairing of homologues, includes only one division at which sister chromatids separate. Option A is incorrect because the descriptions of mitosis and meiosis are reversed. Option B is incorrect because it incorrectly indicates that meiosis gives rise to a maximum of two cells and that their DNA sequence is identical to that of the parent. Option D is incorrect because it incorrectly indicates that meiosis gives rise to a maximum of one cell, with a DNA content double that of the parent.
Competency 027—The teacher understands the theory of biological evolution.

30. Which of the following best illustrates the founder effect?

  1. There is significantly less variation of alleles governing tissue transplant rejection in an island colony of sheep than in the mainland population from which the colony was started in 1975
  2. The uplift of the Isthmus of Panama divided a single ancestral wrasse population into two distinct species of fish
  3. A silverback male gorilla can mate with all the adult females in his troop, most of whom immigrated to the troop from other troops
  4. The small size of most Chihuahuas is the result of selective breeding by humans for smaller dogs
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option A is correct because the founder effect results when a small population, such as the sheep, splits off and isolates from a larger population. Because the population is smaller, there is not as much genetic variability as in the original population, and the incidence of certain traits may be increased or decreased relative to the incidence in the original population. Option B is incorrect because it illustrates allopatric speciation in which two populations of the same species become geographically isolated from each other and form distinct species. Option C is incorrect because it illustrates an increase in gene flow, from the immigration of female gorillas from different troops, rather than a decrease. Option D is incorrect because it illustrates artificial selection rather than isolation of a population of a species.
Competency 028—The teacher understands evidence for evolutionary change during Earth’s history.

31. Which of the following provides the best evidence that fish, amphibians, birds, reptiles and mammals share a common ancestor?

  1. Fossils of primitive forms of all the organisms have been discovered
  2. During development, all the organisms possess pharyngeal gill pouches and a notochord
  3. All the organisms have a special covering that includes moist skin, scales, feathers or hair
  4. All the organisms have mechanisms that permit movement from one location to another
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option B is correct because embryological similarity of specific traits that may not be present in the adult points to a common ancestor. Option A is incorrect because the discovery of fossils of primitive forms of the organisms provides no information about similarities between the fossils. Option C is incorrect because all organisms have some sort of external surface. Option D is incorrect because the ability to move from one location to another is too broad a trait to indicate relatedness.

Domain VI—Diversity of Life

Competency 029—The teacher understands similarities and differences between living organisms and how taxonomic systems are used to organize and interpret the diversity of life.

32. Which of the following groups of organisms is characterized by absorption of organic materials from its environment, a cell wall composed of chitin and reproduction most commonly through spore formation?

  1. Protists
  2. Plants
  3. Bacteria
  4. Fungi
Enter to expand or collapse answer.Answer expanded
Option D is correct because fungi are heterotrophs that secrete enzymes to break down organic materials in the environment or in cells so that the materials can be absorbed by the fungi. Fungi are surrounded by cell walls composed of chitin. Most fungi propagate, either asexually or sexually, by producing spores. Option A is incorrect because protists are autotrophs or heterotrophs (or both) that make or ingest food but do not absorb it. They reproduce asexually or sexually, without spores. Option B is incorrect because the cell walls of plants are composed primarily of cellulose rather than of chitin and, although plants do produce spores, which divide mitotically to produce gametes, plants are autotrophs. Option C is incorrect because bacteria include both autotrophs and heterotrophs that utilize a diverse range of energy sources, and they reproduce by binary fission.
Competency 030—The teacher understands that, at all levels of nature, living systems are found within other living systems, each with its own boundaries and limits.

33. Which of the following is an advantage of the double blood circulation of amphibians, reptiles and mammals versus the single blood circulation of fish?

  1. C O subscript 2 diffuses out of the blood, and O subscript 2 diffuses into the blood
  2. Contraction of the heart chambers is carefully controlled
  3. Blood carries nutrients from the digestive system to the rest of the body
  4. Blood flows under greater pressure to major organs
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Option D is correct because pumping by the heart increases the pressure of blood flow to the major organs after the blood passes through the capillary beds of the lungs. Option A is incorrect because gas exchange in the blood occurs in fish as well, which have capillary beds in their gills that are in close contact with water. Option B is incorrect because contraction of the heart is carefully controlled in fish as well as in amphibians, reptiles, and mammals. Option C is incorrect because blood circulates nutrients from the digestive system in fish as well as in amphibians, reptiles and mammals.
Competency 031—The teacher understands the processes by which organisms maintain homeostasis.

34. By which of the following mechanisms do marine birds maintain their water and salt balance?

  1. They obtain all the salt and water they need from the organisms they eat
  2. They concentrate and excrete excess ingested salt in their urine
  3. They use salt glands to remove excess salt from the seawater they drink
  4. They drink freshwater when it is available and store small quantities
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Option C is correct because marine birds, as well as sea turtles and marine iguanas, possess salt glands on their beaks which contain specialized transport epithelial cells that remove and concentrate excess Na+ and Cl- ions from the blood. Option A is incorrect because marine birds do drink salt water in addition to that which they ingest with their food. Option B is incorrect because very little salt appears in the urine of marine birds. Option D is incorrect because many have little exposure to freshwater, and they have no means of storing it.
Competency 032—The teacher understands the relationship between biology and behavior.

35. In an experiment, a species of migratory bird was placed in cone-shaped cages. The sides of the cages were lined with blotting paper, and ink pads were placed in the bottoms. The tops of the cages were constructed so that when located outdoors, the birds had a full view of the night sky. Directed movements by the birds were indicated by inky footprints the birds made as they walked on the blotting paper. On clear nights in the spring, most footprints were on the north side of the cages but on clear nights in the fall, most footprints were on the south side of the cages. On cloudy nights at either time of year, the location of footprints was random. Which of the following is the best explanation?

  1. The birds have an innate sense of migratory direction and were disoriented by the cages
  2. The birds use day length to orient their migration
  3. The birds use the position of the stars to orient their migration
  4. The birds use air temperature and wind direction to orient their migration
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Option C is correct because the stars appear at different positions in the sky at different times of the year, and birds that migrate at night navigate by the positions of the stars, as long as they are not obscured by clouds. Option A is incorrect because birds do depend on some sort of compass, generally based on the Sun, the stars, or Earth’s magnetic field, and the data suggest that the birds in the experiment point in a particular direction as long as they can see the stars. Option B is incorrect because the data from this experiment indicate that visibility of the stars rather than day length determined the position of the bird footprints. Option D is incorrect because birds do not appear to depend on air temperature or wind, and the data also suggest otherwise.

Domain VII—Interdependence of Life and Environmental Systems

Competency 033—The teacher understands the relationships between abiotic and biotic factors of terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems, habitats and biomes, including the flow of matter and energy.

36. The soil of tropical rain forests contains far less organic matter than the soil of temperate deciduous forests. Which of the following is the best explanation?

  1. Decaying matter is quickly broken down by living organisms or washed away by heavy rain
  2. Tropical rain forests exhibit low biodiversity and consequently have less organic matter to decay
  3. The dense canopy layer of the rain forest blocks organic matter from reaching the soil
  4. Dead organisms decay slowly in the rain forest and release little organic material into the soil
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Option A is correct because material that falls to the ground is quickly broken down by decomposers, encouraged by the high heat and humidity of the rain forest. The heavy rain characteristic of the rain forest also removes much of the organic matter. Option B is incorrect because tropical rain forests exhibit greater biodiversity than any other biome and have dense flora and fauna, except where harmed by people. Option C is incorrect because organic matter comes from organisms growing from or living on the forest floor and so is not blocked by the canopy. Option D is incorrect because dead organisms decay very rapidly due to the heat and humidity.
Competency 034—The teacher understands the interdependence and interactions of living things in terrestrial and aquatic ecosystems.

37. Which of the following best illustrates commensalism?

  1. Microorganisms that live in the gut of termites digest the cellulose that is ingested by the termites when they eat wood
  2. Cattle egrets that forage around cattle and other grazing animals exhibit much greater success in capturing prey than when they forage alone
  3. Tarantula hawk wasps lay their eggs on tarantulas that they have paralyzed, and the larvae hatch and eat the tarantulas
  4. Rhizobium bacteria are found in nodules of legume roots where the roots absorb nitrogen fixed by the bacteria and the legume provides organic compounds to the bacteria
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Option B is correct because commensalism is defined as symbiosis in which one organism benefits while the other is neither harmed nor helped. Cattle egrets benefit from the greater availability of insects and other small prey disturbed by the cattle; on the other hand, the cattle are neither harmed nor helped, although the egrets do sometimes remove ticks from the cattle. Option A is incorrect because it illustrates a mutualistic relationship in which both the microorganisms and termites benefit nutritionally. Option C is incorrect because it illustrates parasitism in which the wasps benefit and the tarantulas are killed. Option D is incorrect because it illustrates a mutualistic relationship in which both the bacteria and the legume benefit.
Competency 035—The teacher understands the relationship between carrying capacity and changes in populations and ecosystems.

38. Which of the following is the best example of a density-independent variable that may alter the carrying capacity of a region for a particular animal?

  1. An infection of several animals by a virus specific to the species
  2. A destructive tornado passing through the region
  3. The presence in the region of a predator of the animals
  4. Introduction of another species occupying the same niche
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Option B is correct because the density of the animal population does not affect the percent of animals that are affected by the tornado. Option A is incorrect because a greater density of animals means that an infected animal is more likely to have contact with and possibly infect an uninfected animal. Option C is incorrect because animals of a population that is of greater density are more likely to fall prey to a particular predator. Option D is incorrect because the introduced species competes with the established species for resources; the greater number of each species, the greater the competition.

Domain VIII—Earth’s History and the Structure and Function of Earth Systems

Competency 036—The teacher understands structure and function of the geosphere.

39. Which of the following is a metamorphic rock?

  1. Basalt
  2. Shale
  3. Topaz
  4. Gneiss
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Option D is correct because gneiss is a metamorphic rock. Option A is incorrect because basalt is an igneous rock. Option B is incorrect because shale is a sedimentary rock. Option C is incorrect because topaz is a mineral.
Competency 037—The teacher understands processes of plate tectonics, weathering, erosion and deposition that change Earth’s surface.

40. The Alps mountain range in Europe is theorized to have formed by which of the following means?

  1. Collision of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates
  2. Eruption of a supervolcano over a hot spot
  3. Impact of a large asteroid
  4. Mounds of debris from an enormous tsunami in the Mediterranean Sea
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Option A is correct because current evidence supports that the Alps were formed by the collision of the African and Eurasian tectonic plates. Option B is incorrect because there is no evidence of a significant hot spot in the area that could have formed the Alps via volcanic activity, and the Alps are not made primarily of volcanic rock. Option C is incorrect because the impact of an asteroid on Earth would leave an impact crater rather than form a mountain range. Option D is incorrect because although a tsunami could push large amounts of debris on land and the Alps are relatively near the Mediterranean Sea, the enormous height of the Alps would make this impossible. Also, the rock types and structures in the Alps do not support this option.
Competency 038—The teacher understands the formation and history of Earth.

41. The Paleozoic era ended with which of the following?

  1. A mass extinction
  2. The splitting of one large continent into smaller continents
  3. A worldwide flood that covered Earth’s landmass
  4. The sudden appearance of many new plant and animal species
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Option A is correct because the end of the Paleozoic era is marked by a mass extinction. Option B is incorrect because it is believed that the supercontinent Pangea began to break apart during the Mesozoic era. Option C is incorrect because Earth’s landmass was not flooded by water at the end of the Paleozoic era. Option D is incorrect because instead of the sudden appearance of many new plant and animal species, there was a mass extinction.
Competency 039—The teacher understands structure and function of the hydrosphere.

42. Fjords are the result of which of the following?

  1. Volcanic activity
  2. Glaciation
  3. Earthquakes
  4. Chemical weathering
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Option B is correct because fjords were carved out by glacial activity. Option A is incorrect because fjords are not caused by volcanic activity. Option C is incorrect because fjords are not caused by earthquakes. Option D is incorrect because fjords do not appear simply as a result of chemical weathering.
Competency 040—The teacher understands structure and function of the atmosphere.

43. Which of the following is true about a parcel of air as it warms up?

  1. The equilibrium vapor pressure of water in the air parcel decreases
  2. The amount of water vapor in the air parcel increases
  3. The relative humidity of the air parcel decreases
  4. Some of the water vapor in the air parcel will condense forming precipitation
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Option C is correct because as temperature increases the equilibrium vapor pressure of water increases, meaning the relative humidity will decrease. Relative humidity is a measure of how much water vapor is in the air compared to the maximum amount that could be in the air parcel at that temperature (saturation vapor pressure). Option A is incorrect because the equilibrium vapor pressure of H2O increases as temperature increases. Option B is incorrect because the amount of gaseous water in the air parcel will not increase unless additional water vapor is introduced from outside the air parcel. The amount will either remain constant, or it may decrease if some of the water vapor condenses — but that is less likely to occur as the temperature increases. In either case, the amount of water vapor will not increase by simply warming the parcel of air. Option D is incorrect because the water vapor will not condense unless the temperature drops below the dew point, the point at which relative humidity is 100% (vapor pressure of water in the air parcel is equal to the saturation vapor pressure).

Domain IX—Components and Properties of the Solar System and the Universe

Competency 042—The teacher understands the implications of Earth’s placement and orientation in the solar system.

44. Which of the following is true about the Earth-Moon-Sun system?

  1. Earth rotates on its axis, but the Moon does not rotate on its axis; this results in the same side of the Moon facing Earth at all times
  2. Tides on Earth are affected by gravitational forces between Earth and the Moon, and between Earth and the Sun
  3. A lunar eclipse is an event in which the view of the Sun from Earth is blocked when the Moon is positioned between Earth and the Sun
  4. Earth rotates on it axis once in approximately 365 days, which is the length of one year
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Option B is correct because tides are caused by the rotation of Earth and the combined effects of the gravitational forces between Earth and the Moon and, to a lesser extent, Earth and the Sun. Option A is incorrect because both Earth and the Moon rotate on their respective axes. Option C is incorrect because a lunar eclipse is an event in which the view of the Moon is obscured when Earth is positioned exactly between the Moon and the Sun. Option D is incorrect because Earth rotates on its axis once in 24 hours, which is the length of one day.
Competency 043—The teacher understands the role of the Sun in the solar system and the characteristics of planets and other objects that orbit the Sun.

45. Which of the planets has the largest mass even though it is composed largely of hydrogen and helium?

  1. Jupiter
  2. Mars
  3. Venus
  4. Neptune
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Option A is correct because Jupiter is a gas giant, and its mass is approximately 1.9 times 10 to the power of 27 kg. Option B is incorrect because Mars is a terrestrial planet, and its mass is much less than that of Jupiter and is approximately 6.4 times 10 to the power of 23 kg. Option C is incorrect because Venus is a terrestrial planet, and its mass is much less than that of Jupiter and is approximately 4.9 times 10 to the power of 24 kg. Option D is incorrect because although Neptune is a gas giant, its mass is less than that of Jupiter and is approximately 1.0 times 10 to the power of 26 kg.
Competency 044—The teacher understands composition, history and properties of the universe.

46. Of the following, which is the latest stage in the life cycle of a small star with a mass similar to our Sun?

  1. Red giant
  2. Protostar
  3. White dwarf
  4. Supernova
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Option C is correct because for a star of this size, the white dwarf is the latest stage in the life cycle of the star. Option A is incorrect because the red giant phase is earlier than the white dwarf phase. Option B is incorrect because the protostar phase is very early in the life cycle of a star. Option D is incorrect because the supernova phase is the latest event in the life cycle of larger stars, but not for stars with a mass similar to the Sun.

Domain X—Science Learning, Instruction and Assessment

Competency 046—The teacher understands research-based theoretical and practical knowledge about teaching science, how students learn science and the role of scientific inquiry in science instruction.

47. Which of the following is an element of inquiry-based science instruction?

  1. A teacher-led question and answer session
  2. A video presentation of science principles to be included in a unit of study
  3. A student forming a hypothesis prior to a lab activity
  4. A student writing a report after researching information on the Internet
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Option C is correct because inquiry-based learning does involve students proposing a hypothesis prior to designing an experiment to test the hypothesis. Option A is incorrect because a teacher asking questions is important, but it is not an element of inquiry-based science instruction. Option B is incorrect because videos can be helpful, but they are not elements of inquiry-based learning. Option D is incorrect because writing reports can have value, but it is not an element of inquiry-based learning.
Competency 047—The teacher knows how to monitor and assess science learning in laboratory, field and classroom settings.

48. Which of the following is a type of summative assessment?

  1. A final examination
  2. A homework exercise
  3. An interview
  4. A question-and-answer session
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Option A is correct because it occurs after completion of learning and assesses what has been learned and how well it has been learned. Option B is incorrect because it is a type of formative assessment. Option C is incorrect because it is a type of diagnostic assessment. Option D is incorrect because it is a type of formative assessment.